1. The major concerns of Public Administration discipline is/are
(i) Absorption of the principles of democracy.
(ii) Policy sensitivity
(iii) Innovative, proactive and risk taking administration
(iv) Coping capacity of administration and government to face modern challenges.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (ii) only
(B) (i), (ii), (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Answers: (D)
2. Frederick Taylor noticed a phenomenon of workers, purposely operating below their capacity and called it
(A) Skiving
(B) Lack of standards of work
(C) Unscientific decision making
(D) Failure of management to design jobs
Answers: (A)
3. A formal organization
(i) Grows and expands
(ii) Is deliberately impersonal
(iii) Forces the members of the group to observe the common rules
(iv) Relationship created by the organization structure is to be honoured by everyone.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answers: (B)
4. Arrange Elton Mayo’s experiments in a chronological sequence. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) First Inquiry
(ii) Human Attitudes and Sentiments
(iii) The Great Illumination
(iv) Absenteeism in the Industries
(v) Social organisation
Codes:
(A) (i), (iv), (v), (iii) and (ii)
(B) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) and (v)
(C) (i), (iii), (ii), (v) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
Answers: (C)
5. Which of the following statements about Simon’s view of rationality is correct?
(A) Rationality is uni-dimensional.
(B) Simon propounds the concept of total rationality.
(C) Every decision maker has unlimited knowledge about alternatives.
(D) Rationality is limited by the skills, values, and purpose and knowledge levels of the decision maker.
Answers: (D)
6. Which one of the following concept is not developed by Peter Drucker?
(A) Generic Management
(B) The concept of Transactional Influence
(C) Management by Objectives
(D) Knowledge Worker
Answers: (B)
7. Who among the following rejected the principle of unity of command?
(A) Elton Mayo
(B) F.W. Taylor
(C) Henry Fayol
(D) Presthus
Answers: (B)
8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Job-centric supervisor in the scheme of Rensis Likert?
(A) He exerts heavy pressure on worker for work.
(B) He shows confidence in subordinates.
(C) He allows little freedom to subordinates.
(D) He helps subordinates when mistakes occur.
Answers: (D)
9. Which one is not among the four systems of management or leadership styles given by Rensis Likert?
(A) Exploitative authoritative
(B) Benevolent authoritative
(C) Constructive
(D) Participative (Democratic)
Answers: (C)
10. Which theory considers personality, motives, values and skills as attributes of leadership?
(A) Trait theory
(B) Behavioural theory
(C) Situational theory
(D) Contingency model
Answers: (A)
11. Yehezkel Dror refers ‘Meta Policy’ as
(A) Policy on policy making system
(B) Master policy
(C) Super policy
(D) Integrated policy
Answers: (A)
12. Which of the following is the part of executive office of the U.S. President?
(A) White House staff and office of Management and budget.
(B) White House staff and office of Personnel Management
(C) Office of Management and Budget and Federal Labour Relation Authority
(D) Office of Management and Budget and Office of Personnel Management
Answers: (A)
13. Who said the following words about comparative Public Administration “the theory of public administration applied to diverse cultures and national settings and the body of factual data by which it can be examined?”
(A) Robert A. Dahal
(B) Ferral Heady and S.L. Stokes
(C) William J. Siffin
(D) Dwight Waldo
Answers: (B)
14. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Authors) (Comments)
a. J.S. Mill i. Continental nuisance
b. Thomas Carlyle ii. Professional Governors of government
c. Dewey iii. Trained incapacity
d. Vablan iv. Occupational Psychosis
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) iii ii i iv
(C) ii i iii iv
(D) i iv ii iii
Answers: (A)
15. There are many gaps in the organisation and operation of development programmes which are:
(i) Inadequate administrative planning
(ii) Traditional administrative practices
(iii) Procedural deficiencies
(iv) Lack of consciousness of achieving goals
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answers: (D)
16. Assertion (A): Bureaucracy seems to be an essential ingredient of modern civilization.
Reason (R): Bureaucracies are found in all large and complex organizations.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answers: (A)
17. “Development administration is concerned with maximizing innovation for development”. Who gave this definition?
(A) John Montgomery
(B) Edward Weidner
(C) F.W. Riggs
(D) Han Been Lee
Answers: (B)
18. “Improvement in the effectiveness of development administration depends on the quality and training of public servants who man it and on a social and political environment which liberates their energies.” Who of the following made this statement?
(A) J.N. Khosla
(B) Merle Fainsod
(C) Irving Swerdlow
(D) F.W. Riggs
Answers: (B)
19. Assertion (A): The community development programme was launched to secure total development of material and human resources of rural areas.
Reason (R): It was realised while implementing the programme that social change is not possible unless the efforts are people centred and involvement of people in their development is not ensured.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answers: (B)
20. Which of the following is/are the roles of Gram Sabha in the areas covered under Panchayats Extension to the Scheduled Areas as PESA Act, 1996?
(i) Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the scheduled areas.
(ii) Gram sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
(iii) Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting licence or mining lease for any minerals in the scheduled areas.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answers: (D)
21. According to 2nd ARC, task of delimitation and reservation of constituencies for local governments should be entrusted to
(A) National Election Commission
(B) State Election Commission
(C) Union Parliament
(D) State Legislature
Answers: (B)
22. The planning departments of the Development Authorities should be merged with District Planning Committee and Metropolitan Planning Committees. This recommendation was made by
(A) Hanumantha Rao Committee
(B) Dantewala Committee
(C) K. Santhanum Committee
(D) 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission
Answers: (B)
23. The principle of subsidiarity is related to
(A) Assigning more financial powers from centre to states.
(B) Devolution of functions to Panchayats to make them function as an institution of self-government.
(C) Delegation of authority within an organization
(D) Delegation of authority outside the organisation
Answers: (B)
24. Which one of the following is not included in the Twelveth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(A) Planning for economic and social development
(B) Water supply
(C) Technical training and vocational education
(D) Safeguarding the interest of weaker sections
Answers: (C)
25. Assertion (A): Zila Parishad is vested with planning and development functions.
Reason (R): District traditionally has been recognised as the administrative unit required performing the related functions.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answers: (A)
26. Which of the following statements regarding Budget in India are correct?
(i) The Constitution of India calls Budget as Annual Financial Statement.
(ii) Budget is statement of estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India.
(iii) The President of India shall lay it before the House of People.
(iv) The Department of Economic Affairs of Ministry of Finance prepares the Budget of Government of India.
Select correct statements by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Answers: (B)
27. Which one of the following has not been associated with PMO?
(A) Bhuvnesh Chaturvedi
(B) Prithvi Raj Chauhan
(C) Brijesh Mishra
(D) N.R. Pillai
Answers: (D)
28. ‘The Parliament may by law provide for a Legislative Council in each state consisting of members elected by the local Governments’. This recommendation was made by
(A) B.N. Srikrishna Commission
(B) Venkatachelliah Commission
(C) 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission
(D) Justice Punchhi Commission
Answers: (C)
29. Put the following Chairman of Finance commissions in a sequential order:
(i) K.C. Pant
(ii) A.M. Khusro
(iii) N.K.P. Salve
(iv) C. Rangrajan
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
Answers: (A)
30. The responsive public administration requires:
(i) Institutional safeguards of technical competence
(ii) Flatter organisation
(iii) High calibre of public personnel
(iv) General standard of efficiency
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answers: (C)
31. National Institute of Rural Development was established in 1958. Prior to 1958 it was known as
(A) Central Institute of Planning and Development
(B) Central institute of study and Research in Community Development
(C) Central Institute of Statistical Research
(D) Central Institute of Training and Development
Answers: (B)
32. Which of the following statements about the functions of NABARD is not correct?
(A) It prepares annual rural credit plans for all the districts in the country.
(B) It undertakes monitoring and evaluation of projects refinanced by it.
(C) It promotes research in the fields of rural banking, agriculture and rural development.
(D) It functions as a regulatory authority in relation to all public sector commercial banks.
Answers: (D)
33. Which of the following statements regarding All India Services are correct?
(i) New All India services may be created only if Council of States declares to do so by a majority resolution.
(ii) New All India Services may be created if it is necessary or expedient in the national interest.
(iii) All India Services may be created by a law passed by Parliament.
(iv) All India Judicial Service may also be created by Parliament by law.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) & (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
Answers: (B)
34. Assertion (A): The social responsibility of the judiciary has now been expanded and the principle of locus standi given a liberal interpretation.
Reason (R): In a social awakened ambience, social action groups are encouraged to approach the courts and come up with public interest litigations for redressing injustice.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answers: (A)
35. “There shall be a District Council, constituted in every district, representing all rural and urban areas in the district and exercising powers and functions in accordance with the provisions of Article 243 G and 243 W of the Constitution.” Which of the following has recommended this?
(A) National Commission for the review of the working of the Constitution.
(B) Punchhi Commission
(C) 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission
(D) Rural-Urban Relationship Committee
Answers: (C)
36. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Commissions) (Chair Persons)
a. 13rd Finance Commission i. P.C. Hota
b. 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission ii. R.S. Sarkaria
c. Commission on Civil Service Reform iii. Vijay Kelkar
d. Commission on Centre-State Relations iv. VeerappaMoiley
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) ii iv i ii
(D) i ii iii iv
Answers: (A)
37. The grants made in advance by the Lok Sabha in respect of estimated expenditure for a part of any financial year is called
(A) Token Grant
(B) Supplementary Grant
(C) Vote on Account
(D) Vote of Credit
Answers: (C)
38. Which one of the following is not correct regarding the role of District officer as collector in the district?
(A) Distribution of taccavi loans and their recovery
(B) Assessment of losses to crops because of natural calamities
(C) Sales of excise shops
(D) Administration of Nazul land
Answers: (C)
39. The Post of the Deputy Collector (non-covenanted Post) was created in the district under the provision of the following Act:
(A) The Charter Act of 1843
(B) The Regulating Act of 1773
(C) The Charter Act of 1833
(D) Pitts India Act of 1784
Answers: (C)
40. Arrange the followings in chronological order according to their appointments:
(i) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(ii) Sarkaria Commission
(iii) Hanumantha Rao Committee
(iv) Thungan Committee
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
(D) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
Answers: (D)
41. According to the Constitution of India the Administrative tribunals cannot be established for
(A) Industrial and Labour disputes
(B) Elections to either House of Parliament
(C) Delimitation of Constituencies
(D) Ceiling on Urban property
Answers: (C)
42. ‘Interview is a process of social interaction’. Who said it?
(A) P.V. Young
(B) M.N. Basu
(C) Goode and Hatt
(D) V.M. Palmer
Answers: (C)
43. The various steps in Research process are given below. Place them in the ascending order of the stages.
(i) Sampling
(ii) Data analysis
(iii) Problem formulation
(iv) Report writing
Select the answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(D) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
Answers: (B)
44. Which one of the following does not refer to practical orientation of research?
(A) Basic Research
(B) Action Oriented Research
(C) Practice Oriented Research
(D) All of the above refer to practical uses
Answers: (A)
45. “N.G.O. is a private enterprise for social progress.” This statement is made by
(A) Lord Bryce
(B) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Lord Beveridge
(D) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
Answers: (C)
46. Which is not the basis of Public Sector Reform?
(A) Inefficiency
(B) Unprofitability
(C) Lack of Competitiveness
(D) Significance of spillover effects
Answers: (D)
47. Which of the following are the impacts of global economic integration on sovereign states?
(i) Interdependency of Trade
(ii) Interdependency of development policies and programmes and their impact on economy, employment etc.
(iii) Impact of global governance dynamics on the local policies and reform.
(iv) Conductive environment for both the capital and the labour at the local level under the aegis of global economic integration.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answers: (D)
48. Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) by replacing Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) was introduced in the year?
(A) 1999
(B) 2000
(C) 2001
(D) 2009
Answers: (A)
49. Which of the following is/are the most common method of privatisation?
(i) Sale to outside owners
(ii) Restitution
(iii) Spontaneous Privatisation
(iv) Management-employees buyout
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iv) only
Answers: (C)
50. Which of the following is not the function of Competition Commission of India?
(A) To consider and approve all the cases of mergers, acquisition beyond a certain value.
(B) To promote the culture of competition in Indian market.
(C) To conduct in-house market research and sectoral research
(D) To suggest reform in the organisation and functioning of RBI and other banks.
Answers: (D)